Re: 32-bit random numbers
- Posted by "Juergen Luethje" <j.lue at gmx.de> Jul 04, 2004
- 603 views
Pete Lomax wrote: > On Sat, 03 Jul 2004 20:44:00 +0200, Juergen Luethje <j.lue at gmx.de> > wrote: > >> That's what Derek's code does, too, if I understand it correctly. >> If two highly skilled software-engineers say so, I think it's not a bad >> idea. > > I was about to suggest the same, but was beaten to it > As I think was said, I would also have noted that #00010001, > #00020002, etc will be less likely., but then again rand() itself is > not perfect. *Concatenation* of two uniformly distributed 16-bit values -- as Derek and Rob suggested -- should IMHO result in a uniform distribution, too. Rob said, that *addition* of two uniformly distributed values does result in a distribution, that is not uniform. Regards, Juergen